EASA Examiner may ask you lots of different questions

During the instrument rating multi-engine skill test, the EASA examiner may ask you several IFR-related questions (and he will). The following elements may be used by the EASA IRE examiner for the Exam candidate’s verbal demonstration of theoretical knowledge.

Air law questions

  • (1) explain the requirements for plus validity and privileges of instrument ratings;
  • (2) explain why a time check has to be completed before flight;
  • (3) describe the necessary action when an aircraft experiences a failure in communications;
  • (4) state the responsibility of the operator when unable to utilise the published departure procedures;
  • (5) explain when the omnidirectional method is used for departure;
  • (6) describe the solutions when omnidirectional procedures are not possible;
  • (7) justify the establishment of aircraft categories for the approach;
  • (8) state the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the minimum sector altitudes (MSAs) established for an aerodrome;
  • (9) describe the point of origin, shape, size, and subdivisions of the area used for MSAs;
  • (10) explain why a pilot should not descend below obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) without visual reference, which is established for precision approach procedures, nonprecision approach procedures and visual (circling) procedures;
  • (11) translate the following acronyms into plain language: decision altitude (DA), decision height (DH), obstacle clearance altitude (OCA), obstacle clearance height (OCH), minimum decision altitude (MDA), minimum decision height (MDH), minimum obstacle clearance (MOC), decision altitude/height (DA/H), obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) and minimum decision altitude/height (MDA/H);
  • (12) explain the relationship between the following: DA, DH, OCA, OCH, MDA, MDH, MOC, DA/H, OCA/H and MDA/H;
  • (13) define the following terms: initial approach fix (IAF), intermediate fix (IF), final approach fix (FAF), missed approach point (MAPt) and turning point;
  • (14) state the accuracy of facilities providing track (omnidirectional radio range (VOR), instrument landing system (ILS), non-directional beacon (NDB));
  • (15) state the optimum descent gradient (preferred for a precision approach) in degrees and per cent;
  • (16) name the five standard segments of an instrument approach procedure and state the beginning and end for each of them;
  • (17) describe where an arrival (ARR) route normally ends;
  • (18) state whether or not omnidirectional or sector ARRs are possible to be made;
  • (19) explain the main task of the initial approach segment;
  • (20) describe the main task of the intermediate approach segment;
  • (21) state the main task of the final approach segment;
  • (22) name the two possible aims of a final approach;
  • (23) explain the term ‘final approach point’ in case of an ILS approach;
  • (24) state what happens if an ILS glide path (GP) becomes inoperative during approach;
  • (25) describe the main task of a missed approach procedure;
  • (26) define ‘MAPt’;
  • (27) state the pilot’s reaction if upon reaching the MAPt, the required visual reference is not established;
  • (28) describe what a pilot is expected to do in the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPt (a missed approach, after an approach flown as CDFA, should be made when reaching the MAPt or DA/H, whichever occurs first);
  • (29) state whether the pilot is obliged to cross the MAPt at the A/H required by the procedure or whether they are allowed to cross the MAPt at an A/H greater than that required by the procedure;
  • (30) describe what is meant by ‘visual manoeuvring (circling)’;
  • (31) state the conditions to be fulfilled before descending below MDA/H in a visual manoeuvring (circling) approach;
  • (32) state how the pilot is expected to behave after initial visual contact during a visual manoeuvring (circling);
  • (33) describe what the pilot is expected to do if visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach;
  • (34) describe the shape and terminology associated with the holding pattern;
  • (35) state the bank angle and rate of turn to be used whilst flying in a holding pattern;
  • (36) explain why pilots in a holding pattern should attempt to maintain tracks and how this is achieved;
  • (37) describe where outbound timing begins in a holding pattern;
  • (38) state where the outbound leg in a holding pattern terminates if the outbound leg is based on distance-measuring equipment (DME);
  • (39) describe the three entry headings for entries into a holding pattern;
  • (40) define the terms ‘parallel entry’, ‘offset entry’, and ‘direct entry’;
  • (41) determine the correct entry procedure for a given holding pattern;
  • (42) state the still-air time for flying on the outbound entry heading with or without DME;
  • (43) define the following Q codes: ‘QNH’ and ‘QFE’;
  • (44) define ‘flight level’ (FL);
  • (45) state the intervals by which consecutive FLs should be separated;
  • (46) describe how FLs are numbered;
  • (47) define the term ‘transition altitude’;
  • (48) define the term ‘transition level’;
  • (49) state how the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed at or below the transition altitude and transition level;
  • (50) define the term ‘transition layer’;
  • (51) state when the QNH altimeter setting should be made available to departing aircraft;
  • (52) state how a QNH altimeter setting should be made available to aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome for landing;
  • (53) state where during the climb, the altimeter setting should be changed from QNH to 1013.2 hPa;
  • (54) describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land at an aerodrome should obtain the transition level;
  • (55) describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land at an aerodrome should obtain the actual QNH altimeter setting;
  • (56) state where the altimeter settings should be changed from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during descent for landing;
  • (57) state the modes and codes that the pilot should operate in the absence of any air traffic control (ATC) directions or regional air navigation agreements;
  • (58) state when the pilot should ‘squawk ident’;
  • (59) state the transponder mode and code to indicate: a state of emergency, a failure in communications, an unlawful interference;
  • (60) describe the consequences of an in-flight transponder failure;
  • (61) state the primary action of the pilot in the case of an unserviceable transponder before departure when no repair or replacement at that aerodrome is possible;
  • (62) understand the various rules and services that apply to the various classes of airspace;
  • (63) describe the aim of clearances issued by the ATC with regard to instrument flight rules (IFR), visual flight rules (VFR) or special VFR flights, and refer to the different airspaces;
  • (64) explain what is meant by the expression ‘clearance limit’;
  • (65) explain the meaning of the phrases ‘cleared via flight planned route’, ‘cleared via (designation) departure’ and ‘cleared via (designation) ARR’ in an ATC clearance;
  • (66) list which items of an ATC clearance should always be read back by the flight crew;
  • (67) justify the speed control by the ATC;
  • (68) explain how the change from IFR to VFR may be initiated by the pilot in command (PIC);
  • (69) define the following terms: ‘transition level’, ‘transition layer’, and ‘transition altitude’;
  • (70) indicate how the vertical position of an aircraft in the vicinity of an aerodrome should be expressed at or below the transition altitude, at or above the transition level, and while climbing or descending through the transition layer;
  • (71) list the six items that are normally included in a voice position report;
  • (72) name the item of a position report which must be forwarded to the ATC with the initial call after changing to a new frequency;
  • (73) understand the difference among the types of separation within the various classes of airspace and among the various types of flight;
  • (74) state who is responsible for the avoidance of collision with other aircraft when operating in visual meteorological conditions (VMC);
  • (75) explain the term ‘expected approach time’ and the procedures for its use;
  • (76) state the reasons which may probably lead to the decision to use another take-off or landing direction than the one into the wind;
  • (77) define the term ‘radar vectoring’;
  • (78) explain the procedures for the conduct of surveillance radar approaches (SRAs);
  • (79) state the mode and code of secondary surveillance radar (SSR) equipment that a pilot may operate in a (general) state of emergency, or (specifically) in case the aircraft is subject to unlawful interference;
  • (80) describe the expected action of the aircraft after receiving a broadcast from air traffic services (ATS) concerning the emergency descent of another aircraft;
  • (81) name the colours used for the various markings (runway (RWY), taxiway (TWY), aircraft stands, apron safety lines);
  • (82) describe the application and characteristics of RWY centre line markings and threshold markings;
  • (83) describe the wing bars of a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) and an abbreviated precision approach path indicator (A-PAPI); and
  • (84) interpret what the pilot sees during approach, using a PAPI, an APAPI, a T visual approach slope indicating system (TVASIS), and an abbreviated T visual approach slope indicator system (ATVASIS);