EASA IRE Examiner will ask you questions about flight planing and monitoring

During the instrument rating skill test, the EASA examiner will ask you several IFR-related questions.  The following elements may be used by the EASA IRE examiner for the Exam candidate’s verbal demonstration of theoretical knowledge.

IFR Flight planning and IFR Flight monitoring

  • (1) select the preferred airway(s) or route(s) considering:
    • altitudes and FLs,
    • standard routes,
    • ATC restrictions,
    • the shortest distance,
    • obstacles, and
    • any other relevant data;
  • (2) determine courses and distances from en route charts;
  • (3) determine bearings and distances of waypoints based on radio navigation aids on en route charts;
  • (4) define the following altitudes:
    • (i) minimum en route altitude (MEA),
    • (ii) minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA),
    • (iii) minimum off-route altitude (MORA),
    • (iv) grid minimum off-route altitude (Grid MORA),
    • (v) maximum authorised altitude (MAA),
    • (vi) minimum crossing altitude (MCA), and
    • (vii) minimum holding altitude (MHA);
  • (5) extract the following altitudes from the chart(s):
    • (i) MEA,
    • (ii) MOCA,
    • (iii) MORA,
    • (iv) Grid MORA,
    • (v) MAA,
    • (vi) MCA, and
    • (vii) MHA;
  • (6) explain the reasons for studying standard instrument departure (SID) and standard ARR (STAR) charts;
  • (7) state the reasons why the SID and STAR charts show procedures only in a pictorial presentation style which is not to scale;
  • (8) interpret all data and information represented on SID and STAR charts, particularly:
    • (i) routings,
    • (ii) distances,
    • (iii) courses,
    • (iv) radials,
    • (v) altitudes/levels,
    • (vi) frequencies, and
    • (vii) restrictions;
  • (9) identify SIDs and STARs which may be relevant to a planned flight;
  • (10) state the reasons why it is imperative to be familiar with instrument approach procedures and appropriate data for departure, destination, and alternate airfields prior to departure;
  • (11) select instrument approach procedures appropriate for departure, destination, and alternate airfields;
  • (12) interpret all procedures, data and information represented on instrument approach charts, particularly:
    • (i) courses and radials,
    • (ii) distances,
    • (iii) altitudes, levels or heights,
    • (iv) restrictions,
    • (v) obstructions,
    • (vi) frequencies,
    • (vii) speeds and times,
    • (viii) DA/Hs and MDA/H,
    • (ix) visibility and runway visual ranges (RVRs), and
    • (x) approach light systems;
  • (13) find communications (COM) frequencies and call signs for the following:
    • (i) control agencies, service facilities, and flight information services (FISs),
    • (ii) weather information stations, and
    • (iii) automatic terminal information service (ATIS);
  • (14) find the frequency and/or identifiers of radio navigation aids;
  • (15) complete the navigation plan with the courses, distances, and frequencies taken from charts;
  • (16) find standard instrument departure and ARR routes to be flown or to be expected;
  • (17) determine the position of top of climb (TOC) and top of descent (TOD), considering appropriate data;
  • (18) determine variation and calculate magnetic/true courses;
  • (19) calculate true airspeed (TAS) according to given aircraft performance data, altitude, and outside air temperature (OAT);
  • (20) calculate wind correction angles (WCA)/drift and ground speeds (GSs);
  • (21) determine all relevant altitudes/levels, particularly MEA, MOCA, MORA, MAA, MCA, MRA, and MSA;
  • (22) calculate individual and accumulated times for each leg until destination and alternate airfields;
  • (23) convert between volume, mass, and density given in different units commonly used in aviation;
  • (24) determine relevant data from the flight manual, such as fuel capacity, fuel flow/consumption at different power/thrust settings, altitudes, and atmospheric conditions;
  • (25) calculate attainable flight time/range considering fuel flow/consumption and available amount of fuel;
  • (26) calculate the required fuel considering fuel flow/consumption and required time/range to be flown;
  • (27) calculate the required fuel for an IFR flight considering expected meteorological conditions and expected delays under defined conditions;
  • (28) find and analyse the latest state at the departure, destination, and alternate aerodromes, in particular with regard to:
    • (i) opening hours,
    • (ii) work in progress (WIP),
    • (iii) special procedures due to WIP,
    • (iv) obstructions, and
    • (v) changes of frequencies for COM, navigation aids, and facilities;
  • (29) find and analyse the latest en route state with regard to:
    • (i) airway(s) or route(s),
    • (ii) restricted, dangerous, and prohibited areas, and
    • (iii) changes of frequencies for COM, navigation aids, and facilities;
  • (30) state the reasons for a fixed format of an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) air traffic services flight plan (ATS FPL);
  • (31) determine the correct entries to complete an FPL, as well as decode and interpret the entries in a completed FPL, particularly as regards the following:
    • (i) aircraft identification (Item 7),
    • (ii) flight rules and type of flight (Item 8),
    • (iii) number and type of aircraft and wake turbulence category (Item 9),
    • (iv) equipment (Item 10),
    • (v) departure aerodrome and time (Item 13),
    • (vi) route (Item 15),
    • (vii) destination aerodrome, total estimated elapsed time, and alternate aerodrome (Item 16),
    • (viii) other information (Item 18), and
    • (ix) supplementary information (Item 19);
  • (32) complete the FPL using information from the following:
    • (i) navigation plan,
    • (ii) fuel plan, and
    • (iii) operator’s records on basic aircraft information;
  • (33) explain the requirements for the submission of an ATS FPL;
  • (34) explain the action to be taken in case of FPL changes;
  • 35) state the action to be taken in case of inadvertent changes to track, TAS, and time estimate, affecting the current FPL; and
  • (36) explain the procedures for closing an FPL;